In the debate that I previously reviewed, I explained how I thought Sean McDowell did a good job of sticking to the text and not going for the red herrings of Matthew Vines. I agreed with McDowell’s answers, though I would have had a slightly different answer to one of the challenges of Vines.
One of the major arguments of Vines is that since we’re presented with new information about sexual orientation, we have to re-examine Scripture in light of this finding. Vines points out that in the ancient world, they didn’t know what we did about sexual orientation. McDowell challenged him on this and quoted some sources. Vines said that he was misquoting the sources, then McDowell denied that.
Who was correct? The truth is that I don’t know, but there is one thing to consider. How does Vines know that we’re correct on sexual orientation now? Yes, you can hear people like Vines say that they were wrong but how does he know what we’re correct? In future centuries, they might discover information that shows we’re wrong, and we’ll have compromised Scripture to satisfy activists like Vines to promote this popular trend.
I have the following to say to Matthew Vines:
You believe that we have information about sexual orientation that those of ancient and medieval times didn’t know about. How do you know that what we have “discovered” now is correct. Perhaps years, decades, or centuries down the road we may discover a new reality and our understanding of sexual orientation may be different. Should we re-interpret Scripture again when that happens? Should we base it on our experience?
Matthew Vines, one thing that we know for sure is that while our understanding of orientation may change, the one thing that we know that doesn’t change is the Scriptures. Since I’m very skeptical of what social sciences tell us, I’m going to have to go with God’s word. As a Protestant you don’t believe that Scripture should be interpreted by Church tradition. While I would disagree with that as a Catholic, I know that you don’t believe it. However, we can look at what the Scriptures say in Matthew 19 and see that marriage is between a man and a woman.
One of the amazing things about this passage is the quotation of Genesis 2:24 which says:
For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’?
The man will leave his father and mother? Isn’t this odd Matthew? When God said this, Adam must have been confused? He would have been confused because there were no fathers or mothers at that time? He may not have known what a father or mother even was. The fact that God speaks of these categories before they came into existence should tell us something. What do you think it tells us Matthew? We may or may not possess the full knowledge of sexual orientation, but God who spoke of fathers and mothers before they existed certainly did.